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There's been the question here before on whether only the KJV is the true Bible. In my study of Revelation, Revelation 7:14 has been one verse I have tried to come to a conclusion of.

“These are they who have come out of the great tribulation; they have washed their robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb."

In researching the various commentary of this verse, I ran across the following quotes:

οὗτοί εἰσιν οἱ ἐρχόμενοι ἐκ τῆς θλίψεως τῆς μεγάλης

Lit. "These are the ones coming out of the tribulation, the great one."

ἐκ τῆς θλίψεως τῆς μεγάλης is a prepositional phrase (preposition->article->noun->article->adjective) that modifies "the ones coming out" (οἱ ἐρχόμενοι). The preposition ἐκ only takes the genitive case and, in this case, most naturally reads as the ablative "out of."

The articular adjective (τῆς μεγάλης) is in the restrictive position which adds emphasis to the modifier. In this case, we are to understand that the tribulation will be great.

and...

The Douay-Rheims is based on the Latin Vulgate. Latin does not have a definite article, so one could excuse Douay-Rheims for not having the definite article in its translation. But, there's no excuse for the KJV.

This translation certainly can make a difference in the reading of this verse.  

So again it brings the question of Revelation 22:18-19 about adding or taking away from the Word.  It also brings the question of the interpretation of Revelation 7:14.

First, how do you translate this passage especially in the light of Revelation 14:15 of the sickle of the harvest being ripe. There is also the comparison of Joel 3:13 which Revelation 14:15 is a repeat of. However Joel adds "so great is their wickedness". Could Revelation 15:1-5 of those in with robes with harps be a continuation of Revelation 7:14 or two completely different occurrences?

Secondly, does this make a difference in the translation which would mean that the KJV took away from the Word or considered just a translation error? What of the quote above that "one could excuse Douay-Rheims for not having the definite article in its translation. But, there's no excuse for the KJV". Would you agree with that?

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